• shrugal@lemm.ee
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      1 year ago

      Idk what to tell you but: Yes it does. We can’t really argue if you refuse to elaborate your point.

      • commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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        1 year ago

        when you drive over a bridge, do you tip the engineering form? the contractors? they’re the ones who created this experience for you.

        • shrugal@lemm.ee
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          1 year ago

          I pay taxes, those were used to pay the people who build the bridge. And yes, taxes should be fair. If it’s a private bridge then the owners have every right to demand a fee for crossing it.

          • commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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            1 year ago

            not the owners: the designers. what if I copy the bridge and put it in my front yard: do you think I owe royalties to the engineering firm?

            • shrugal@lemm.ee
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              1 year ago

              Yes, of course. They created the design, it cost them time and money, you want to use it, so you should pay part of those costs. Or to put it differently: You both use the design, why should they be the ones to pay for its creation, and not you?

                • shrugal@lemm.ee
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                  1 year ago

                  Who says you can only owe something if you take something away first?

                  Think about how rent works. The building or appartement will still be there, loose value over time and need repairs whether you live there or not, yet you still owe the owner rent if you do.

                  • commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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                    1 year ago

                    your might owe under almost any circumstance, but almost all of them have to drop with a mutually agreed contract or transfer of property. what circumstance do you think created the debt here? and what if someone walks across my front yard bridge? do they owe the engineers too? it’s just silly.

        • MJBrune@beehaw.org
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          1 year ago

          Yes, you do, in the form of buying gas or paying taxes. You don’t even have to use the bridge to have to pay for it.

            • MJBrune@beehaw.org
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              1 year ago

              It depends on the system. In taxes, yes. Use isn’t tied to paying. In consumer goods and services, they are not paid by taxes. So they do have a direct use/buy causation.