How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

  • orcrist@lemm.ee
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    2 days ago

    Please read it all again. They didn’t rely on the conversion. It’s just a convenient way to create a counterexample.

    Anyway, here’s a simple equivalent. Let’s consider a number like pi except that wherever pi has a 9, this new number has a 1. This new number is infinite and doesn’t repeat. So it also answers the original question.