• KazuchijouNo@lemy.lol
    56·
    2 months ago

    In spanish “pene” is masculine. However “una pene” (fem) is a much more interesting concept. Even more if we throw in some diminutives. “una penesita”

    I actually jokingly call dicks “pussos” with my girlfriend in spanish.

    • Canadian_Cabinet @lemmy.ca
      26·
      2 months ago

      Una pene makes no sense. Also it would technically be penecillo, with a c. However, we do use polla which is akin to dick/cock and is feminine. We also say coño which means vagina and that is masculine

      • Sneezycat@sopuli.xyz
        8·
        2 months ago

        Cimbrel, carajo, picha, polla, tranca, rabo… Tiene nombres mil el miembro viril! (Yeah idk why we have so many words for penis)

        • addie
          10·
          2 months ago

          It’s a language essential! Dick, willy, cock, penis, shaft, manhood, todger, pole, …

      • festnt@sh.itjust.works
        2·
        2 months ago

        in portuguese we have something similar. “pênis”, “pinto” and “pau” are masculine, but “piroca” is feminine.

        why so many words for the same thing? good question! i have no idea!

        btw if you want to know what each one means:
        pênis: penis
        pinto: closest translation in this meaning would be “cock” but the other, more common, meaning is “chick” as in a baby chicken
        pau: literally means stick and can be used to refer to a penis. (thankfully there’s also “graveto” which means stick but people don’t think about a penis when they hear it)
        piroca: i don’t know if there is any meaning for this word other than dick or penis, and im pretty sure it’s some variation of “pinto”, made to sound goofier (and it seems it’s feminine just because it ends with an A)

  • Djehngo@lemmy.world
    261·
    2 months ago

    So as far as I can tell the rule for deciding if a french word is feminine is “does it end with an e”.

    There are exceptions and French people claim that’s not how it works, but it is an incredibly useful heuristic

    • addie
      192·
      2 months ago

      I feel that ‘gender’ is probably a misleading term for the languages that have ‘grammatical gender’, it rarely has anything to do with genitalia. ‘Noun class’, where adjectives have to decline to agree with the class would fit better in most cases.

      English essentially does not have decline adjectives, except for historical outliers like blond/e where no-one much cares if you don’t bother, and uses his / hers / its / erc using a very predictable rule. So no ‘grammatical gender’.

      • festnt@sh.itjust.works
        5·
        2 months ago

        in humans the gender can be any, even when the person has specific genitalia. so saying gender is a misleading term because it rarely has to do with genitalia doesn’t make much sense to me.

        so basically i dont see why not just call it gender when the pronouns given to each word in such languages is gendered

      • Ginny [they/she]@lemmy.blahaj.zone
        4·
        2 months ago

        The problem is that the noun class that is used to refer to you is based on your gender. As long as that is the case, grammatical gender will probably be the most apt name for the concept.

      • Persi@lemm.ee
        4·
        2 months ago

        English has the peculiarity of having two variants of the same word: “gender” and “genre” with slightly different meanings.

        You could lean on it and go with genre. But just changing the word is unlikely to help much, the concept itself is deeply associated with genitalia in English culture, you’d still need to explain it.

      • ObjectivityIncarnate@lemmy.world
        2·
        2 months ago

        The word “gender” was a linguistic thing long before it was ever used to describe people. The latter use case didn’t really exist before the 1940s.

        If anything, it’s the ‘people definition’ that ought to have to change term names, it’s the newcomer, lol.

      • Skullgrid@lemmy.world
        2·
        2 months ago

        ‘Noun class’, where adjectives have to decline to agree with the class would fit better in most cases.

        great,now explain why the water in spanish fits into a noun class with incorrect “the” and why hands do the same thing, but for the opposite class.

        bonus : why are fire and door in different noun classes?

        the source of this arrogance : first language had no noun classes , nor indefinite articles.

    • Valmond@lemmy.world
      1·
      2 months ago

      It’s almost a 50% successrate!

      The joke here is bad things are feminine (no science to back that up lol).